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UPSC Prelims GS Paper I · 2014
Data as of 11 Oct 2026. Also: Booster PYQs of 2014 by subject.
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- 1.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
- Avanti
- Gandhara
- Kosala
- Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2 and 4
- C3 and 4 only
- D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
The Buddha lived and preached mainly in the Gangetic plains.
Kosala (capital: Sravasti) — correct: Buddha spent many rainy seasons here and taught extensively in the kingdom of Kosala. Jetavana, near Sravasti, was one of his best-known monastic resorts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Magadha (capital: Rajagriha) — correct: Buddha also travelled and taught in Magadha. Rajagriha, where the Bamboo Grove was offered by King Bimbisara, was an important centre associated with his life. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Avanti (capital: Ujjain) — wrong: Avanti is not directly associated with the life of the Buddha. It became linked with Buddhism later through missionary activity. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Gandhara — wrong: Gandhara was not directly associated with the life of the Buddha. It became an important Buddhist centre much later, especially during and after the Mauryan and Kushan periods. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
So, only Kosala and Magadha are associated with the life of the Buddha.
Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only.
Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India - 2.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History In Medival India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for
- Amilitary officers
- Bvillage officers
- Cspecialists in Vedic rituals
- Dchiefs of craft guilds
Show answer
Answer: (B) village officers
'Mahattara' (village elder) and 'Pattakila' (village headman) were titles given to village-level officers in medieval India.
Think of them as local administrators who managed day-to-day village affairs — collecting revenue, settling minor disputes, etc.
They had nothing to do with the army, Vedic rituals, or craft guilds.
Source: 'Administrative System in India' by U.B. Singh, p.47.
Key learnings →The Mauryan Empire - 3.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was
- Athe mosque for the use of Royal Family
- BAkbar's private prayer chamber.
- Cthe hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
- Dthe room in which the nobles belonging in different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs.
Show answer
Answer: (C) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
Ibadat Khana ('House of Worship') was a hall built by Akbar in 1575 at Fatehpur Sikri specifically for religious discussions and debates.
Akbar invited scholars from different religions — Islam, Hinduism, Christianity, Jainism, Zoroastrianism — to discuss and debate their faiths. This exposure eventually led Akbar to create 'Din-i-Ilahi' (a syncretic faith).
Key distinction:
(a) It was NOT a mosque.
(b) It was NOT Akbar's private prayer room.
(d) It was NOT just for nobles — it was for scholars of various religions invited by Akbar.
(Ref: NCERT Class 7, Our Pasts-II, p.54)
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire - 4.
Modern Indian History What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858)?
- To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
- To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
- To regulate East India Company's trade with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1858 came after the 1857 Revolt and marked the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown.
It had two key objects:
Disclaimed annexation — promised Indian princely states they would not be annexed (reversing Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse policy).
Transferred administration to the Crown — the Governor-General became the Viceroy, answerable to the British Parliament.
Statement 3 is WRONG because by 1858 the Company's political role was ending entirely — there was no need to 'regulate its trade.' The Act actually abolished the Company's governing powers.
(Ref: Bipin Chandra)
Key learnings →British Conquest, Expansion and Revolt of 1857 - 5.
Modern Indian History The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
- Asolve the problem of minorities in India
- Bgiven effect to the Independence Bill
- Cdelimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
- Denquire into the riots in East Bengal.
Show answer
Answer: (C) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
The Radcliffe Committee (headed by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer) was appointed in 1947 to demarcate/draw the boundary line between India and Pakistan — both on the western side (Punjab) and eastern side (Bengal).
Radcliffe had never visited India before and was given just 5 weeks to divide the subcontinent.
The boundary he drew is called the 'Radcliffe Line.'
Don't confuse with:
(a) Minorities problem — addressed by various other commissions.
(b) Independence Bill — the Indian Independence Act, 1947 was passed by British Parliament.
(d) Riots inquiry — separate commissions were set up for that.
(Ref: Spectrum Modern India)
Key learnings →Freedom and Partition (1939-1947) - 6.
Modern Indian History The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
- Arevolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
- Bnationalist organization operating from Singapore.
- Cmilitant organisation with headquarters at Berlin
- DCommunist movement for India's freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent.
Show answer
Answer: (A) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
The Ghadar (meaning 'Revolt/Mutiny') Party was founded in 1913 by Lala Har Dayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna in San Francisco, USA.
It was a revolutionary organisation of Indian immigrants (mostly Punjabi Sikhs) on the US and Canadian west coast who wanted to overthrow British rule through armed revolution.
They published a newspaper called 'Ghadar' in Urdu, Punjabi, and Hindi.
Don't confuse with:
- (b) Indian Independence League (Singapore)
- (c) Berlin Committee (Germany)
- (d) Tashkent-based Communist groups
(Ref: Bipin Chandra, Modern India)
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929) - 7.
Modern Indian History The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is on significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the
- Aattainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress.
- BAttainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.
- CNon-Cooperation Movement was launched.
- DDecision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken.
Show answer
Answer: (B) Attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.
The Lahore Session (December 1929) under President Jawaharlal Nehru is a landmark because it declared 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) as the Congress goal.
Before this, the demand was only for 'Dominion Status' (self-government within the British Empire).
On 26 January 1930, the first Independence Day was celebrated — which is why we celebrate Republic Day on 26 January.
Don't confuse:
- (a) Self-Government/Dominion Status = 1928 Calcutta Session.
- (c) Non-Cooperation = 1920.
- (d) Round Table Conference = 1930-32.
(Ref: Bipin Chandra)
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939) - 8.
Modern Indian History The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until
- AThe First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
- BKing George V abrogated Curzon's Act as the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
- CGandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement.
- DThe Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan.
Show answer
Answer: (B) King George V abrogated Curzon's Act as the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911
Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal in 1905, splitting it into East Bengal (Muslim majority) and West Bengal (Hindu majority).
This sparked massive protests — the Swadeshi and Boycott movements.
The partition was annulled in 1911 at the Delhi Durbar, when King George V announced the reunification of Bengal and also shifted the capital from Calcutta to Delhi.
Timeline to remember:
1905 — Partition by Curzon.
1911 — Annulled at Delhi Durbar by King George V.The other options are historically unrelated events.
(Ref: Bipin Chandra, Modern India)
Key learnings →Militant Nationalism (1905-1918) - 9.
Art and Culture Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant samplings of fruit-bearing trees.
Which of the following are such communities/tribes?
- ABhutia and Lepcha
- BGond and Korku
- CIrula and Toda
- DSahariya and Agariya
Show answer
Answer: (B) Gond and Korku
The Gond and Korku tribes of central India (Madhya Pradesh region) celebrate a month-long traditional eco-festival where they plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.
This is their own green revolution — a conservation practice passed down through generations, rooted in their deep relationship with forests.
The other pairs (Bhutia-Lepcha from Sikkim, Irula-Toda from Nilgiris, Sahariya-Agariya from MP/UP) are not associated with this specific tree-planting festival.
Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions - 10.
Art and Culture With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is 'Kalaripayattu'?
- AIt is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India.
- BIt is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area.
- CIt is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar.
- DIt is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.
Show answer
Answer: (D) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.
Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest martial arts in the world, originating in Kerala (South India).
'Kalari' = training ground/gymnasium,
'Payattu' = fight/exercise.It includes strikes, kicks, weapons training (swords, shields, spears), and knowledge of vital pressure points (marma).
It is still practised as a living tradition in Kerala and parts of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
Why other options are wrong:
(a) It's not a Bhakti/Shaivism cult.
(b) It's not metalwork/bronze casting.
(c) It's not a dance-drama — Kathakali is the dance-drama from the same region.
Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions - 11.
Art and Culture Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
- A22nd March (or 21st March)
- B15th May (or 16th May)
- C21st March (or 30th March)
- D21st April (or 20th April)
Show answer
Answer: (A) 22nd March (or 21st March)
India's national calendar is based on the Saka Era (starting year: 78 AD).
Chaitra is the first month.
Chaitra 1 falls on:
- 22nd March in a normal year (365 days),
- 21st March in a leap year (366 days).
This is easy to remember: India's financial year also starts close to this date (1st April).
The Saka calendar was adopted in 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for official purposes.
(Ref: India Year Book)
Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions - 12.
Art and Culture With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to
- Aan assembly of village elders
- Ba religious sect
- Ca style of temple construction
- Dan administrative functionary
Show answer
Answer: (C) a style of temple construction
Panchayatana is a style of Hindu temple construction where one main shrine (dedicated to the principal deity) is surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines at the four corners.
The word literally means 'group of five.'
It's like a quincunx pattern (one in the centre, four at corners).
This style is found in many North Indian Nagara-style temples.
Famous examples:
- Kandariya Mahadeva Temple (Khajuraho)
- Lakshmana Temple (Khajuraho)
- Dashavatara Temple (Deogarh).
Don't confuse with:
(a) Panchayat (village council),
(b) any religious sect, or
(d) any administrative post.
The '-tan' suffix relates to a structural arrangement, not governance.
(Ref: NCERT + CCRT website)
Key learnings →Indian Architecture - 13.
Art and Culture With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:
Famous work of sculpture Site 1. A grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below Ajanta 2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock Mount Abu 3. "Arjuna's Penance" / "Descent of Ganga" sculpted on the surface of huge boulders Mamallapuram Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 — CORRECT: The grand Mahaparinirvana sculpture of Buddha (reclining Buddha with mourning disciples below and celestial musicians above) is in Cave 26 at Ajanta, Maharashtra.
Pair 2 — WRONG: The massive Varaha (boar incarnation) relief showing Vishnu rescuing Goddess Earth is at Udayagiri Caves near Vidisha (Madhya Pradesh), NOT Mount Abu.
Mount Abu is famous for Dilwara Jain temples. This is the key trap in this question.
Pair 3 — CORRECT: 'Arjuna's Penance' / 'Descent of Ganga' is a giant open-air rock relief at Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), Tamil Nadu — one of India's most iconic sculptures.
(Ref: A.L. Basham, pp.373-374)
Key learnings →Indian Architecture - 14.
Art and Culture Consider the following languages :
- Gujarati
- Kannada
- Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language/Languages' by the Government ?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
As of the 2014 question,
Kannada and Telugu had been declared Classical Languages by the Government.
Gujarati was NOT on the list.
The Classical Language status (as of 2014):
- Tamil (2004)
- Sanskrit (2005)
- Kannada (2008)
- Telugu (2008)
- Malayalam (2013)
- Odia (2014).
Gujarati, despite being an ancient language, did not receive this status.
Criteria for Classical Language status include:
- high antiquity (1500+ years)
- ancient literature
- original literary tradition not borrowed from another language.
Note: In 2024, Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese were also granted Classical Language status, but that's after this question was asked.
Key learnings →Indian Languages and Literature - 15.
Art and Culture Consider the following pairs:
Dance Form State 1. Garba Gujarat 2. Mohiniattam Odisha 3. Yakshagana Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 — CORRECT: Garba is Gujarat's iconic folk dance, performed during Navratri with circular movements around a lamp.
Pair 2 — WRONG: Mohiniattam belongs to Kerala, NOT Odisha.
'Mohini' = enchantress; it's a graceful, feminine dance form.
Odisha's classical dance is Odissi.
This is a common UPSC trap — mixing up South Indian dance forms and states.
Pair 3 — CORRECT: Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form from Karnataka, combining dance, music, dialogue, and elaborate costumes.
It narrates stories from epics.
Quick chart:
- Kerala = Mohiniattam + Kathakali
- Odisha = Odissi
- Karnataka = Yakshagana
- Gujarat = Garba.
Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre - 16.
Art and Culture With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:
- Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama
- It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam
- It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam, recognised by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
Key facts:
Statement 1 — CORRECT: It combines music, dance, and drama (like most Indian classical forms).
Statement 2 — CORRECT: It is a centuries-old Vaishnavite tradition, practised in 'Sattras' (Vaishnavite monasteries) of Assam, founded by the saint Srimanta Sankardeva (15th century).
Statement 3 — WRONG: The music is based on 'Borgeets' (devotional songs composed by Sankardeva and Madhavdeva), NOT by Tulsidas, Kabir, or Mirabai — those saints belong to the North Indian Bhakti tradition.
Trap alert: UPSC mixes up Bhakti saints from different regions.
Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre - 17.
Art and Culture A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their
- Amartial arts in North-East India
- Bmusical tradition in North-West India.
- CClassical vocal music in South India.
- DPictra dura tradition in Central India.
Show answer
Answer: (B) musical tradition in North-West India.
Manganiyars are a hereditary community of Muslim folk musicians from the Thar Desert region of western Rajasthan (North-West India).
They have been performing for centuries for their patrons (called 'jajmans') during weddings, births, and festivals.
Their music uses instruments like kamaicha, khartal, and dholak.
They are NOT from North-East India, NOT classical vocalists from South India, and have nothing to do with pietra dura (the marble inlay work of Mughal architecture like the Taj Mahal).
Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre - 18.
Art and Culture The national motto of India, 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
- AKatha Upanishad
- BChandogra Upanishad
- CAitareya Upanishad
- DMundaka Upanishad
Show answer
Answer: (D) Mundaka Upanishad
'Satyameva Jayate' (Truth Alone Triumphs) is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad (Mantra 3.1.6).
It is inscribed below the State Emblem of India (the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath).
Don't confuse the Upanishads:
- Mundaka Upanishad — 'Satyameva Jayate' + the metaphor of two birds on a tree (Jiva and Atman).
- Katha Upanishad — story of Nachiketa and Yama (Death); discusses the nature of the soul.
- Chandogya Upanishad — 'Tat Tvam Asi' (Thou Art That) — one of the Mahavakyas.
- Aitareya Upanishad — deals with creation and the nature of Atman.
For UPSC, memorise: Mundaka = Satyameva Jayate. This is a frequently repeated question across years.
(Ref: India Year Book)
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India - 19.
Art and Culture Consider the following statements:
- 'Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal
- The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong — a 'Neither 1 nor 2' question.
Statement 1 — WRONG:
'Bijak' is the famous collection of teachings of Kabir (not Dadu Dayal).
Kabir's followers compiled his verses into the Bijak.
Dadu Dayal's teachings are collected in the 'Dadu Anubhav Vani.'Statement 2 — WRONG:
Pushti Marg ('Path of Grace') was founded by Vallabhacharya (1479–1531), NOT Madhvacharya.
Madhvacharya (13th century) founded the Dvaita (dualism) school of Vedanta.Quick revision:
Kabir → Bijak,
Dadu Dayal → Dadu Anubhav Vani,
Vallabhacharya → Pushti Marg,
Madhvacharya → Dvaita Vedanta.(Ref: NCERT Class 7, Our Pasts-II; NIOS material)
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India - 20.
Art and Culture Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
- AMimamsa and Vedanta
- BNyaya and Vaisheshika
- CLokayata and Kapalika
- DSankhya and Yoga
Show answer
Answer: (C) Lokayata and Kapalika
The six orthodox systems (Shad Darshana) of Indian Philosophy are:
(1) Sankhya and
(2) Yoga (paired),
(3) Nyaya and
(4) Vaisheshika (paired),
(5) Purva Mimamsa and
(6) Uttara Mimamsa/Vedanta (paired).
They are called 'orthodox' (astika) because they accept the authority of the Vedas.
Lokayata (Charvaka) is a HETERODOX (nastika) materialist philosophy that rejects the Vedas, the soul, and afterlife.
It believes only in direct perception.
Kapalika is NOT a philosophical system at all — it's a Shaivite tantric sect known for extreme ascetic practices.
So Lokayata + Kapalika is the pair that does NOT belong to the six systems.
Memorise the three pairs:
- Sankhya-Yoga
- Nyaya-Vaisheshika
- Mimamsa-Vedanta.
(Ref: R.S. Sharma, Ancient India)
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India - 21.
Art and Culture With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:
Famous Shrine Location 1. Tabo monastery and temple complex Spiti Valley 2. Lhotsava Lhakhang Zanskar Valley 3. Alchi Temple Complex Ladakh Which of the above pairs given is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 — CORRECT: Tabo Monastery (founded 996 AD) is in Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.
It's called the 'Ajanta of the Himalayas' for its ancient murals.
Pair 2 — WRONG: Lhotsava Lhakhang is in Nako village, Kinnaur district (Himachal Pradesh), NOT Zanskar Valley.
'Lhotsava' refers to the great translator Rinchen Zangpo who built it.
Pair 3 — CORRECT: Alchi Temple Complex is in Ladakh.
It's famous for its stunning 11th-century Buddhist art and is one of the oldest surviving monastery complexes in Ladakh.
Memory aid:
- Tabo → Spiti
- Alchi → Ladakh
- Lhotsava Lhakhang → Nako/Kinnaur (not Zanskar).
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India - 22.
Geography Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?
- Continental drift
- Glacial cycles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Both continental drift and glacial cycles have profoundly influenced evolution:
Continental drift — as continents moved apart over millions of years, populations of organisms got isolated on different landmasses.
This geographic isolation led to independent evolution (e.g., marsupials evolved uniquely in Australia after it separated from other continents).
Glacial cycles — repeated ice ages caused habitats to expand, contract, and shift.
Species had to adapt, migrate, or go extinct.
Glaciation also created land bridges (like the Bering Strait) that allowed species to cross between continents.
Both are well-established drivers of evolution.
Neither can be excluded.
(Ref: NCERT Class 11 Geography)
Key learnings →Geomorphology - 23.
Geography Consider the following pairs:
Hills Region 1. Cardamom Hills Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills Konkan Coast 3. Mahadeo Hills Central India 4. Mikir Hills North-East India Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2
- B2 and 3
- C3 and 4
- D2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 and 4
Pair 1 — WRONG:
Cardamom Hills are in Kerala/Tamil Nadu (Western Ghats),
NOT on the Coromandel Coast.
The Coromandel Coast is the eastern coast of South India (Tamil Nadu/Andhra Pradesh).
Pair 2 — WRONG:
Kaimur Hills are in the Vindhyan Range (Bihar/UP/MP — central-eastern India),
NOT on the Konkan Coast.
The Konkan Coast is the western coast of Maharashtra/Goa/Karnataka.
Pair 3 — CORRECT:
Mahadeo Hills (part of the Satpura Range) are in Central India (Madhya Pradesh).
Pachmarhi, India's famous hill station, is in the Mahadeo Hills.
Pair 4 — CORRECT:
Mikir Hills (also called Karbi Anglong Hills) are in North-East India (Assam).
The Karbi Anglong district is named after these hills.
Pairs 3 and 4 are correct.
(Ref: NCERT Class 11)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 24.
Geography What are the benefits of implementing the 'Integrated Watershed Development Programme?
- Prevention of soil runoff
- Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
- Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
- Regeneration of natural vegetation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C1, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
Benefits of Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP):
(1) Prevention of soil runoff — CORRECT: The primary goal of watershed management is to reduce soil erosion by building check dams, contour bunding, and vegetative barriers.
(2) Linking perennial and seasonal rivers — WRONG: River interlinking is a completely separate mega-project (National River Linking Project). IWDP has nothing to do with it. This is the distractor.
(3) Rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge — CORRECT: Watershed development includes building percolation tanks, farm ponds, and recharge structures to capture rainwater and replenish groundwater.
(4) Regeneration of natural vegetation — CORRECT: Afforestation and pasture development are key components, which help restore natural vegetation cover.
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Remember: Watershed = localised water and soil conservation, NOT large-scale river engineering.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 25.
Geography Consider the following rivers:
- Barak
- Lohit
- Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Rivers flowing through Arunachal Pradesh:
Lohit — CORRECT: Flows through eastern Arunachal Pradesh; one of the major tributaries of the Brahmaputra. It enters India at Kibithu.
Subansiri — CORRECT: The largest tributary of Brahmaputra, flows through central Arunachal Pradesh. The controversial Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project is located at the Arunachal-Assam border.
Barak — WRONG: The Barak River flows through Manipur and southern Assam (Barak Valley), NOT through Arunachal Pradesh. It eventually flows into Bangladesh and becomes the Surma and Kushiyara rivers.
Memory: Arunachal's major rivers (west to east) = Kameng, Subansiri, Siang (main Brahmaputra), Dibang, Lohit. Barak is a separate river system altogether.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 26.
Geography In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
- Terrace cultivation
- Deforestation
- Tropical climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Only Deforestation causes soil erosion.
(1) Terrace cultivation — WRONG association.
Terracing actually PREVENTS soil erosion on hill slopes by creating flat steps that slow down water runoff.
It's a soil conservation technique, not a cause of erosion.
(2) Deforestation — CORRECT:
Removing trees exposes soil to rain and wind.
Tree roots hold soil together; without them, rain washes topsoil away (sheet erosion, gully erosion).
This is India's biggest cause of soil erosion.
(3) Tropical climate — WRONG:
Having a tropical climate doesn't automatically mean soil erosion.
Many tropical regions have dense forests that protect soil.
It's deforestation IN tropical areas that causes erosion, not the climate itself.
UPSC trick:
Don't confuse a soil conservation method (terracing) with a cause of erosion.
(Ref:** NCERT Class 11 Geography)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 27.
Geography If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
- Oak
- Rhododendron
- Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: A (1 and 2 only)
1. Oak (Correct)
- The Environment: Oak trees thrive in temperate broadleaf forests.
- Himalayan Presence: They are highly characteristic of the middle altitudes of the Himalayas (between 1,500 to 3,000 meters), forming vast natural green canopies.
2. Rhododendron (Correct)
- The Environment: Rhododendrons prefer cool, moist, montane climates.
- Himalayan Presence: They are iconic to the Himalayan region, ranging from large trees in the lower ranges to dwarf shrubs at higher alpine altitudes. Their vibrant pink and red spring blooms dominate the mountain landscapes.
3. Sandalwood (Incorrect)
- The Environment: Sandalwood (Chandan) is a tropical dry deciduous tree species.
- The Reality: It requires a warm climate with distinct wet and dry seasons. It grows natively in Southern India—predominantly across the Western Ghats, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. It does not naturally grow in the cold, high-altitude alpine or temperate climate of the Himalayas.
Geographic Breakdown
Plant Species Climatic Zone Key Indian Habitats Oak / Rhododendron Montane Temperate Himalayas (Middle & High altitudes) Sandalwood Tropical Deciduous South India (Deccan Plateau & Western Ghats)
The Simple Elimination Trap
- Spot the Geographical Outlier: Sandalwood is universally famous as a product of South Indian forests (think Veerappan or Karnataka's soap industry).
- Eliminate Options: Realizing that a tropical South Indian tree like Sandalwood (Statement 3) cannot naturally grow in the freezing Himalayas immediately lets you cross out options B, C, and D. This leaves you with A (1 and 2 only) as the only logical answer.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 28.
Geography Which of the following have coral reefs?
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- Gulf of Kachchh
- Gulf of Mannar
- Sunderbans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B2 and 4 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
India's major coral reef areas are:
(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands — CORRECT: Extensive fringing reefs around these islands; the richest coral diversity in India.
(2) Gulf of Kachchh (Kutch) — CORRECT: Northernmost coral reefs in India (Gujarat coast). Despite extreme conditions (high temperature variation, turbidity), corals survive here. Marine National Park is located here.
(3) Gulf of Mannar — CORRECT: Between India and Sri Lanka. Has a Biosphere Reserve with 21 islands surrounded by coral reefs.
(4) Sundarbans — WRONG: The Sundarbans is a mangrove delta ecosystem (world's largest), NOT a coral reef area. Mangroves and coral reefs are completely different ecosystems — mangroves grow in muddy, brackish tidal waters; corals need clear, warm, shallow saltwater. Also remember: Lakshadweep has India's only atoll reefs (not in the options here).
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 29.
Geography Consider the following pairs:
Region Well-known for the production of 1. Kinnaur Areca nut 2. Mewat Mango 3. Coromandel Soya bean Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (D) None
All three pairs are WRONG — a rare 'None' answer.
(1) Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh) — famous for apples, dry fruits, and chilgoza pine nuts, NOT areca nut.
Areca nut grows in warm, tropical coastal regions like Karnataka, Kerala, and Assam.
(2) Mewat (Haryana/Rajasthan border) — an arid/semi-arid region, NOT known for mango.
Mango-famous regions include Malihabad (UP), Ratnagiri (Maharashtra), and Malda (West Bengal).
(3) Coromandel (eastern coast of Tamil Nadu/Andhra Pradesh) — known for rice cultivation, NOT soybean.
Soybean is grown predominantly in central India — Madhya Pradesh is called the 'Soya State.'
When all three pairs are obviously mismatched geographically, answer 'None.'
(Ref: Khullar, India Comprehensive Geography)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 30.
Geography Consider the following pairs:
Programme/Project Ministry 1. Drought-Prone Area Programme Ministry of Agriculture 2. Desert Development Programme Ministry of Environment and Forests 3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas Ministry of Rural Development Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (D) None
All three programme-ministry pairings are WRONG:
(1) Drought-Prone Area Programme (DPAP) — was under the Ministry of Rural Development, NOT Ministry of Agriculture.
(2) Desert Development Programme (DDP) — was also under the Ministry of Rural Development, NOT Ministry of Environment and Forests.
(3) National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) — was under the Ministry of Agriculture, NOT Ministry of Rural Development.
The trick here is that DPAP and DDP (both area-development programmes) were under Rural Development, while NWDPRA (a farming-related watershed project) was under Agriculture. The question swaps them to confuse.
Answer: None.
(Ref: India Year Book)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 31.
Geography In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates' of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future.
But what is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider/greater implementation?
- There is no National Seeds Policy in place
- There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops
- There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2
- B3 only
- C2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 only
Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) = percentage of area sown with certified/quality seeds out of total area sown.
Higher SRR means better crop yields.
The only real constraint listed here is:
Statement 1 — WRONG: India DOES have a National Seeds Policy (2002).
Statement 2 — WRONG: Private seed companies ARE active in supplying vegetable seeds and horticultural planting material (companies like Monsanto, Syngenta, Mahyco etc.).
Statement 3 — CORRECT: The actual bottleneck is for low-value, high-volume crops (like pulses, oilseeds, coarse cereals).
Since profit margins are low, private companies avoid these crops, and government production can't meet demand — creating a supply gap.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 32.
Geography With reference to 'Changpa' community of India, consider the following statements:
- They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand
- They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool
- They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The Changpa are nomadic pastoralists from the Changthang plateau in Ladakh (now a Union Territory, earlier part of J&K).
Statement 1 — WRONG: They live in Ladakh, NOT Uttarakhand. This is the most common trick in this question.
Statement 2 — CORRECT: They rear Changra goats (Pashmina goats) that produce the world-famous Pashmina wool — one of the finest and most expensive wools.
Statement 3 — CORRECT: Changpas are classified as a Scheduled Tribe.
Memory aid:
Changpa → Changthang → Ladakh → Pashmina.Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 33.
Geography Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'?
- AAndman and Nicobar
- BNicobar and Sumatra
- CMaldives and Lakshadweep
- DSumatra and Java
Show answer
Answer: (A) Andman and Nicobar
The Ten Degree Channel (10°N latitude) separates the Andaman Islands (to the north) from the Nicobar Islands (to the south).
Must-know channels in Indian geography:
- Ten Degree Channel → Andaman and Nicobar
- Eight Degree Channel → Minicoy (Lakshadweep) and Maldives
- Nine Degree Channel → within Lakshadweep islands (Aminidivi and Cannanore groups)
- Palk Strait → India and Sri Lanka
- Duncan Passage → South Andaman and Little Andaman
(Ref: NCERT Class 11 Geography, p.19)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 34.
Geography Consider the following towns of India:
- Bhadrachalam
- Chanderi
- Kancheepuram
- Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1, 2 and 3 only
- D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Only Chanderi and Kancheepuram are famous textile centres:
Chanderi (Madhya Pradesh) — known for Chanderi sarees/fabric made of silk and cotton, with fine texture and light weight.
Recognised as a GI-tagged product.
Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) — famous for heavy silk sarees with rich zari work, considered among India's finest wedding sarees.
Bhadrachalam (Telangana) — famous for the Rama temple on the banks of Godavari, NOT for textiles.
Karnal (Haryana) — known for the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), NOT textiles.
Tip: For UPSC, maintain a list of GI-tagged textile products and their locations.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 35.
Geography Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area / Peak State 1. Dampa Tiger Reserve Mizoram 2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary Sikkim 3. Saramati Peak Nagaland Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Pair 1 — CORRECT:
Dampa Tiger Reserve is in Mizoram (western Mizoram, near the Bangladesh border).
It's one of the largest wildlife reserves in the North-East.Pair 2 — WRONG:
Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is in Tripura, NOT Sikkim.
It is located around the Dumbur Lake (Gumti river reservoir) in Tripura.
Sikkim's protected areas include Khangchendzonga NP and Fambong Lho WLS.Pair 3 — CORRECT:
Saramati Peak (3,841 m) is the highest peak of Nagaland, located on the Nagaland-Myanmar border.
It is the highest peak in the Naga Hills.Memory tip for NE India:
Learn one key protected area and one key peak per state — UPSC loves NE geography.Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 36.
Geography Consider the following pairs:
National Highway Cities connected 1. NH4 Chennai and Hyderabad 2. NH6 Mumbai and Kolkata 3. NH15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (D) None
All three pairs are WRONG (answer is 'None').
The old NH numbering (pre-2010 renumbering) was:
- NH4 — connected Chennai to Thane (via Bangalore, not Hyderabad).
- NH6 — connected Hajira (near Surat) to Kolkata (not starting from Mumbai).
- NH15 — ran from Pathankot to Samakhiali (Gujarat), passing through Amritsar and Jaisalmer, NOT connecting Ahmedabad to Jodhpur.
Note: India renumbered all National Highways after 2010. The new system uses different numbers entirely. UPSC sometimes tests old NH numbers from pre-2010 NCERT textbooks.
(Ref: NCERT Class 12 Geography Part II)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography - 37.
Geography The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
- AEquatorial climate
- BMediterranean climate
- CMonsoon climate
- DAll of the above climates
Show answer
Answer: (C) Monsoon climate
Monsoon climate is defined by the seasonal reversal of prevailing winds.
In India:
- Summer (June–September) — winds blow from the Indian Ocean toward land (SW monsoon), bringing heavy rain.
- Winter (October–February) — winds reverse and blow from land toward the ocean (NE monsoon), mostly dry (except Tamil Nadu coast).
Why not the others:
- Equatorial climate — has no seasonal wind reversal; it's hot and wet year-round with convectional rainfall.
- Mediterranean climate — has seasonal rainfall variation (dry summers, wet winters) but not due to wind reversal; it's due to shifting pressure belts.
The word 'monsoon' itself comes from the Arabic 'mausim' meaning 'season,' referring to this wind reversal.
(Ref: NCERT Class 11 Geography)
Key learnings →World Physical Geography - 38.
Geography Turkey is located between
- ABlack Sea and Caspian Sea
- BBlack Sea and Mediterranean Sea
- CGulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
- DGulf of Aqaba and Dead Se
Show answer
Answer: (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Turkey is a transcontinental country located between the Black Sea (to the north) and the Mediterranean Sea (to the south).
The western part (Thrace) is in Europe; the eastern part (Anatolia/Asia Minor) is in Asia, separated by the Bosphorus Strait, Sea of Marmara, and Dardanelles.
Why others are wrong:
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea — the Caspian Sea is much further east (bordered by Iran, Azerbaijan, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan, Russia). Turkey doesn't touch it.
(c) Gulf of Suez — that's in Egypt (Sinai Peninsula).
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea — those are between Israel, Jordan, Egypt, and Saudi Arabia.
Key geographic fact: Turkey controls the strategically vital Turkish Straits (Bosphorus + Dardanelles) connecting the Black Sea to the Mediterranean.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography - 39.
Geography What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
- Bangkok
- Hanoi
- Jakarta
- Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A4-2-1-3
- B3-2-4-1
- C3-4-1-2
- D4-3-2-1
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3-4-1-2
South to North latitudinal order:
Jakarta (6°S — Southern Hemisphere, the southernmost)
→ Singapore (1°N — almost on the Equator)
→ Bangkok (14°N)
→ Hanoi (21°N — the northernmost).So the sequence is 3-4-1-2.
How to remember:
Jakarta is BELOW the equator (south of it).
Singapore is right AT the equator.
Bangkok is in the tropics.
Hanoi is the farthest north, close to the Tropic of Cancer.Common mistake:
Students confuse Singapore and Jakarta.
Singapore feels more 'developed/modern' so they assume it's further north, but Jakarta is actually further SOUTH (below the equator).Always verify with a mental map.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography - 40.
Indian Polity Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 2 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
The Cabinet Secretariat is the top coordinating body for decision-making at the highest level:
(1) Preparation of Cabinet agenda — CORRECT: It prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings, circulates papers to ministers, and ensures all relevant ministries have been consulted before an item comes to the Cabinet.
(2) Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees — CORRECT: Various Cabinet Committees (like Cabinet Committee on Security, Economic Affairs, etc.) get their administrative and secretariat support from the Cabinet Secretariat.
(3) Allocation of financial resources — WRONG: This is the job of the Ministry of Finance through the Union Budget process and the Department of Expenditure. The Cabinet Secretariat coordinates; it doesn't control the purse strings. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in India and chairs the Committee of Secretaries.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Executive - 41.
Indian Polity Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
- Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule
- Appointing the Ministers
- Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
- Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2 only
- B1 and 3 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
The Governor's discretionary powers are limited but important:
(1) Sending a report to the President for President's Rule (Article 356) — CORRECT: This is a key discretionary power. The Governor can recommend President's Rule if they believe the state government cannot function per the Constitution. No ministerial advice is needed for this.
(2) Appointing Ministers — WRONG: The Governor appoints the CM, and then other Ministers are appointed ON THE ADVICE of the CM (Article 164). This is NOT discretionary — the Governor is bound by the CM's recommendations. Exception: The choice of CM itself can involve discretion when no party has a clear majority.
(3) Reserving bills for President's consideration (Article 200) — CORRECT: The Governor can use personal judgment to reserve certain State bills for the President. This is explicitly a discretionary power — no ministerial advice is required.
(4) Making rules for State Government business — WRONG: Article 166 (3) says the Governor makes Rules of Business, but this is done on the advice of the CM, not at the Governor's personal discretion.
So only Statements 1 and 3 are true discretionary powers.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Executive - 42.
Indian Polity Consider the following statements:
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
This is based on Article 77 of the Constitution.
Statement 1 — CORRECT: Article 77
(3) says the President shall make rules for convenient transaction of Government business and allocate work among Ministers.
These are called the 'Rules of Business.'
Statement 2 — WRONG: Article 77
(1) says all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed in the name of the PRESIDENT, not the Prime Minister.
The PM advises, but formally all orders say 'The President is pleased to...'
Easy way to remember: India's executive actions = in the name of the President. PM is the real power, but the President is the formal head.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Executive - 43.
Indian Polity Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
- There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India
- A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct.
Statement 1 — CORRECT: The Constitution does NOT explicitly mention 'No-Confidence Motion.'
It only says in Article 75 (3) that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
The no-confidence motion procedure comes from Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha — it's a parliamentary convention, not a constitutional provision.
Statement 2 — CORRECT: A no-confidence motion can ONLY be introduced in the Lok Sabha because the Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha).
Even if Rajya Sabha disapproves, the government doesn't need to resign.
Minimum 50 MPs must support the motion for it to be admitted.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Executive - 44.
Indian Polity Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
- Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
- Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
This is a conceptual question about constitutionalism.
The core idea of a Constitutional Government is LIMITED GOVERNMENT — the Constitution exists primarily to RESTRICT STATE POWER so that individual liberty is protected.
Statement 1 — WRONG: This describes an authoritarian/totalitarian government where individual freedom is curtailed for state power. This is the OPPOSITE of constitutionalism.
Statement 2 — CORRECT: A Constitutional Government places checks on state authority (through separation of powers, fundamental rights, judicial review, rule of law) to protect individual liberty.
Think of it this way: The Constitution is a contract between the people and the state, where the people agree to give the state some power, BUT the Constitution limits how much power the state can exercise.
Without these limits, you get dictatorship.
(Ref: Arora and Goyal, Chapter on Constitutionalism)
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution - 45.
Indian Polity The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
- AThe President of India
- Bthe Parliament
- CThe Chief Justice of India
- Dthe Law Commission
Show answer
Answer: (B) the Parliament
Article 124
(1) says the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such number of other judges as Parliament may by law prescribe.
So it is PARLIAMENT that decides the strength of the SC through legislation (like the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act).
The President appoints judges but cannot increase the number.
The CJI recommends names for appointment but doesn't decide strength.
The Law Commission advises on legal reforms but has no such power.
Current strength: Originally 8 judges (1950), increased multiple times by Parliament — now 34 (including CJI).
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Judiciary - 46.
Indian Polity The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
- Aadvisory jurisdiction
- Bappellate jurisdiction
- Coriginal jurisdiction
- Dwrit jurisdiction
Show answer
Answer: (C) original jurisdiction
The Supreme Court has three types of jurisdiction:
(1) Original Jurisdiction (Article 131) — cases that come DIRECTLY to the SC without going through lower courts.
Centre vs State or State vs State disputes fall here.
(2) Appellate Jurisdiction — appeals from High Courts.
(3) Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143) — President seeks SC's opinion on legal questions.
(4) Writ Jurisdiction (Article 32) — for enforcing Fundamental Rights.
A Centre-State dispute goes directly to the SC under Original Jurisdiction because no lower court can handle disputes between sovereign entities of the federation.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Judiciary - 47.
Indian Polity Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
- ASecond Schedule
- BFifth Schedule
- CEighth Schedule
- DTenth Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (D) Tenth Schedule
Anti-defection provisions are in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
Must-know Schedules for UPSC:
- 1st Schedule — States and UTs.
- 2nd Schedule — Salaries of President, Governors, Judges, etc.
- 3rd Schedule — Oaths and affirmations.
- 5th Schedule — Administration of Scheduled Areas.
- 6th Schedule — Administration of tribal areas in NE states.
- 7th Schedule — Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.
- 8th Schedule — Official Languages (22 languages).
- 9th Schedule — Acts protected from judicial review.
- 10th Schedule — Anti-defection.
- 11th Schedule — Panchayat powers (29 subjects).
- 12th Schedule — Municipality powers (18 subjects).
The Tenth Schedule disqualifies legislators who defect (switch parties).
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Legislature - 48.
Indian Polity Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
- AThe committee on Public Accounts
- BThe committee on Estimates
- CThe Committee on Public Undertakings
- DThe committee on Petitions
Show answer
Answer: (B) The committee on Estimates
The Committee on Estimates is the largest parliamentary committee with 30 members (all from Lok Sabha only).
Comparisons:
- Public Accounts Committee (PAC) — 22 members (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha).
- Committee on Public Undertakings — 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS).
- Committee on Petitions — 15 members.
Easy way to remember: Estimates = biggest (30 members), and it's Lok Sabha exclusive. PAC and Public Undertakings are equal at 22 and have members from both Houses.
Fun fact: The Estimates Committee was set up on the recommendation of John Mathai in 1950. It examines whether money spent by the government gives 'value for money.'
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Legislature - 49.
Indian Polity In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
- APreamble to the constitution
- BDirective Principles of State Policy
- CFundamental Duties
- DNinth Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy
Promotion of international peace and security is in Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Part IV of the Constitution.
Article 51 says the State shall endeavour to:
- Promote international peace and security.
- Maintain just and honourable relations between nations.
- Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.
- Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
Why not the other options:
(a) Preamble — mentions 'sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic' and justice, liberty, equality, fraternity — but NOT international peace specifically.
(c) Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) — these are citizen duties, not state policy.
(d) Ninth Schedule — contains laws protected from judicial review.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties - 50.
Indian Economy In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance.
Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
- AThe oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics.
- BThe gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
- CThe leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines.
- DIt is a source of high quality biodiesel.
Show answer
Answer: (B) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
Guar (cluster bean) suddenly became a high-value crop because guar gum extracted from its seeds is used as a thickening agent in hydraulic fracturing ('fracking') fluid, which is essential for shale gas extraction.
When the shale gas boom happened (especially in the USA), demand for guar gum skyrocketed, and India — being the world's largest producer of guar (mainly Rajasthan) — benefited hugely.
The other options are fictional uses invented to mislead:
- guar is not used for biodegradable plastics
- anti-histamines
- or biodiesel.
Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors - 51.
Indian Economy The terms 'Marginal Standing Facility Rate' and 'Net Demand and Time Liabilities', sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to
- Abanking operations
- Bcommunications networking
- Cmilitary strategies
- Dsupply and demand of agricultural products
Show answer
Answer: (A) banking operations
Both terms are RBI/banking jargon:
MSF (Marginal Standing Facility) — an emergency overnight borrowing window where banks can borrow from RBI at a rate higher than the repo rate (up to 1% of their NDTL). Introduced in May 2011.
NDTL (Net Demand and Time Liabilities) — essentially the total deposits and borrowings of a bank (demand deposits like savings/current accounts + time deposits like FDs).
CRR and SLR are calculated as a percentage of NDTL.
These have zero connection to communications, military, or agriculture.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System - 52.
Indian Economy What does venture capital mean?
- AA short-term capital provided to industries
- BA long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
- CFunds provided to industries at times of incurring losses.
- DFunds provided for replacement and renovation of industries.
Show answer
Answer: (B) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
Venture capital = money given to NEW businesses/startups with high growth potential, in exchange for equity (ownership stake).
Key features:
(1) It's long-term, not short-term.
(2) It's for new entrepreneurs, not existing loss-making firms.
(3) It's risk capital — the investor bets on future growth.
Why other options are wrong:
(a) Short-term capital = working capital, not venture capital.
(c) Funds for losses = bailout/restructuring.
(d) Replacement/renovation = modernisation loans.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics - 53.
Indian Economy Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as 'World Economic Outlook ?
- AThe International Monetary Fund
- BThe United Nations Development Programme
- CThe World Economic Forum
- DThe World Bank
Show answer
Answer: (A) The International Monetary Fund
World Economic Outlook (WEO) is published by the IMF (International Monetary Fund), usually twice a year (April and October).
It provides analysis of global economic developments and forecasts.
Don't confuse with other famous publications:
- World Bank → World Development Report
- UNDP → Human Development Report
- WEF (World Economic Forum) → Global Competitiveness Report
- Global Risks Report.
This is a straightforward factual question — just memorise which organisation publishes which report.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics - 54.
Indian Economy With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?
- Balance of trade
- Foreign assets
- Balance of invisibles
- Special Drawing Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3
- C1 and 3
- D1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3
The Current Account in Balance of Payments has two main parts:
(1) Balance of Trade — value of goods exported minus imported (visible trade).
(2) Balance of Invisibles — services (IT, tourism), remittances (money sent by Indians abroad), and income (interest/dividends).
Foreign assets and SDRs (Special Drawing Rights) belong to the Capital/Financial Account or Reserves, NOT the Current Account.
Simple trick:
- Current Account = day-to-day transactions (trade + services + transfers).
- Capital Account = assets, investments, and borrowings.
(Ref: NCERT Economics, Uma Kapila)
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics - 55.
Indian Economy The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
- Ainclusive growth and poverty reduction.
- Binclusive and sustainable growth
- Csustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
- Dfaster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.
Show answer
Answer: (D) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.
The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012–2017) had the theme:
'Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.'
All three words matter —
Faster (higher GDP growth),
Sustainable (environmentally responsible),
More Inclusive (benefits reaching all sections).
The other options miss one or more keywords.
UPSC often tests exact official phrasing — so memorise the tagline of each Five-Year Plan.
For comparison:
11th Plan = 'Faster and More Inclusive Growth' (no 'sustainable').
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview - 56.
Indian Economy Which of the following are associated with 'Planning' in India?
- The Finance Commission
- The National Development Council
- The Union Ministry of Rural Development
- The Union Ministry of Urban Development
- The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1, 2 and 5 only
- B1, 3 and 4 only
- C2 and 5 only
- D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 5 only
Only the National Development Council (NDC) and Parliament are directly associated with 'Planning' in India:
NDC — was the apex body that approved Five-Year Plans.
It included the PM, all CMs, members of Planning Commission, and key Cabinet ministers.
It was the highest decision-making body for planning.
Parliament — approved the Plan and the budgetary allocation for it.
Plans had no legal force until Parliament sanctioned the funds.
Why others are excluded:
- Finance Commission (Art. 280) — deals with distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States.
- It's a constitutional body for fiscal transfers, NOT planning.
- Ministries of Rural/Urban Development — they are implementing agencies that execute plans, not bodies that formulate plans.
The question asks about institutions associated with planning formulation, not implementation.
(Ref: Laxmikanth)
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview - 57.
Indian Economy What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
- It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages
- It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2 only
- DNeither 1 nor 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 only
Business Correspondents (BCs), also called 'Bank Saathi,' are agents appointed by banks to provide basic banking services in remote villages where opening a full bank branch is not viable.
They can do BOTH:
(1) Help villagers receive government subsidies and social security payments (like MGNREGA wages, pensions) directly.
(2) Accept deposits and process withdrawals.
BCs were a key part of financial inclusion schemes like Swabhimaan.
Think of them as mini mobile bank counters in branchless areas.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions - 58.
Indian Economy If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
- Adecrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
- Bincrease the tax collection of the Government.
- CIncrease the investment expenditure in the economy
- Dincrease the total savings in the economy.
Show answer
Answer: (C) Increase the investment expenditure in the economy
This is basic macroeconomics (Keynesian theory).
When interest rates fall → borrowing becomes cheaper → businesses take more loans → they invest more in factories, equipment, expansion → Investment Expenditure INCREASES.
Why other options are wrong:
(a) Consumption may actually increase (not decrease) because EMIs on loans become cheaper.
(b) Tax collection doesn't directly rise just because interest rates fall.
(d) Lower interest rates actually discourage saving (lower returns on FDs/savings accounts), so total savings may fall, not rise.
Key concept: Interest rate and investment have an INVERSE relationship.
(Ref: Uma Kapila, Ramesh Singh)
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy - 59.
Indian Economy In the context of Indian economy which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of 'Statutory Reserve Requirements'?
To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid
To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: A (1 only)
1. Control the number of loans banks can give out (Correct)
- The Rule: The RBI forces banks to lock away a specific percentage of their deposits as a safety reserve (using tools called CRR and SLR).
- The Effect: If the RBI raises this reserve limit, banks have less cash left over in their hands. With less cash, they are forced to reduce the number of loans (advances) they give to the public.
2. Make people's deposits safe and liquid (Incorrect)
- The Mistake: These reserves are meant to control the country's money supply and inflation, not to safeguard your individual bank account.
- The Truth: What actually keeps your bank deposits safe is Deposit Insurance (which protects your money up to ₹5 lakh if a bank fails).
3. Prevent banks from making too much profit (Incorrect)
- The Mistake: The RBI is an economic regulator, not a profit inspector.
- The Truth: The RBI does not care how much profit a bank makes, as long as the bank follows the safety rules and keeps the financial system stable.
4. Force banks to have enough cash for daily withdrawals (Incorrect)
- The Mistake: Daily cash in a bank branch (vault cash) is managed entirely by the branch based on daily customer footfall.
- The Truth: Reserve money is strictly tied up—either sent directly to the RBI or invested in long-term government bonds. It cannot be touched to hand out cash to a customer walking up to a teller window.
CRR vs. SLR in Short
Reserve Tool Where is it kept? In what form? CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) Kept with the RBI Pure Cash SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) Kept inside the Bank Safe Assets (Gold or Government Bonds)
The Simple Elimination Trap
- Think Core Purpose: Always ask yourself “What is the main job of a reserve requirement?” It is a volume knob for the economy. Turning it up shrinks the money supply; turning it down expands it.
- This makes Statement 1 the clear winner. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are just common misconceptions about how banking operations work.
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy - 60.
Indian Economy The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
- ATax imposed by the Central Government
- BTax imposed by the central Government but collected by the State Government.
- CTax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government.
- DTax imposed and collected by the State Government.
Show answer
Answer: (D) Tax imposed and collected by the State Government.
Before GST
(2017), sales tax on goods like toothpaste was under Entry 54 of the State List (Schedule VII).
This means the State Government had the power to both impose AND collect it.
Easy way to remember: Sales Tax = State (both start with 'S').
The Centre handled excise duty on manufacturing; the State handled sales tax on purchase/sale.
Note: After GST, this distinction has changed, but this question is from the pre-GST era.
(Ref: Laxmikanth, D.D. Basu)
Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy - 61.
Indian Economy With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
- Defence expenditure
- Interest payments
- Salaries and pensions
- Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1, 2, 3 and 4
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
In the old budget classification (before 2017 when Plan/Non-Plan distinction was abolished), Non-Plan Expenditure covered all recurring, committed spending that the government must pay regardless of development plans:
(1) Defence expenditure — salaries, equipment, operations.
(2) Interest payments — on government borrowings.
(3) Salaries and pensions — of government employees.
(4) Subsidies — food, fertilizer, fuel.
All four are correct. Think of Non-Plan as 'maintenance spending' — the government has no choice but to pay these.
Plan Expenditure was for new development projects under Five-Year Plans.
(Ref: NCERT Economics, Uma Kapila)
Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy - 62.
Environment If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses.
Which one of the following is/are such bird/birds?
- Painted Stork
- Common Myna
- Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2
- B2 only
- C2 and 3
- D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Only the Common Myna follows cattle.
The Common Myna (also called the Indian Myna) is a classic example of 'commensalism' — it walks alongside grazing cattle and picks up insects (grasshoppers, beetles) that get disturbed as cattle move through the grass.
The cattle are neither helped nor harmed.
Painted Stork — a large wading bird found near wetlands and marshes, NOT alongside cattle in grasslands. It feeds on fish in shallow water.
Black-necked Crane — a rare, high-altitude bird found in Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh wetlands. It lives in remote marshes, not in farmland alongside cattle.
The Cattle Egret is another bird famous for this behaviour, but it wasn't in the options.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 63.
Environment Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three ?
- ACrab
- BMite
- CScorpion
- DSpider
Show answer
Answer: (A) Crab
This is a classification question.
Mite, Scorpion, and Spider all belong to Class Arachnida (8 legs, no antennae, body divided into cephalothorax and abdomen).
Crab belongs to Class Crustacea (10 legs, two pairs of antennae, hard exoskeleton).
So Crab is the odd one out.
Quick identification trick:
- Count the legs —
- Arachnids = 8 legs,
- Insects = 6 legs,
- Crustaceans = usually 10 legs.
But beyond leg count, crabs breathe through gills and live in water/moist environments, while arachnids are mostly terrestrial and breathe through book lungs or tracheae.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 64.
Environment Consider the following pairs:
Wetland Confluence of rivers 1. Harike Wetlands Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej 2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park Confluence of Banas and Chambal 3. Kolleru Lake Confluence of Musi and Krishna Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Only Pair 1 is correct:
Harike Wetland — CORRECT: Located at the confluence of Beas and Sutlej rivers in Punjab. A barrage was built here in 1952, creating the Harike Lake. It's a Ramsar site and an important habitat for migratory birds.
Keoladeo Ghana NP — WRONG pairing: It is near Bharatpur (Rajasthan) and is fed by the Ajan Bund (a man-made reservoir). It is NOT at the Banas-Chambal confluence. The Banas joins Chambal much further south.
Kolleru Lake — WRONG pairing: It lies between the Krishna and Godavari river deltas in Andhra Pradesh, NOT at the Musi-Krishna confluence. The Musi is a tributary of Krishna that flows through Hyderabad.
Tip: For wetland questions, learn the river association and state of each Ramsar site.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 65.
Environment With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong.
Statement 1 — WRONG:
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — NOT the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
They are buffer zones around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Statement 2 — WRONG:
ESZs do NOT prohibit ALL human activities.
They regulate certain activities (like mining, large industries, major construction) but allow many others (like agriculture, rain-water harvesting, organic farming).
The specific prohibitions/regulations vary from zone to zone and are notified individually by MoEF.
Think of ESZs as 'transition zones' — not no-go zones.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 66.
Environment Consider the following statements:
- Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body
- National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C2 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 — WRONG:
Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 — NOT the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
This is a common UPSC trick — mixing up the parent Act.
Statement 2 — CORRECT:
NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) IS a statutory body, created by amending the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in 2006.
It oversees Project Tiger.
Statement 3 — CORRECT:
NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin Authority) was chaired by the Prime Minister.
It was set up in 2009 under the Environment (Protection) Act.
(Later replaced by National Mission for Clean Ganga in 2016.)
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 67.
Environment Consider the following international agreements:
- The international Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
- The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
- The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three international agreements have a bearing on biodiversity:
(1) International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) — DIRECTLY about biodiversity; it deals with conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources (crop diversity, seed banks).
(2) UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) — land degradation and desertification destroy habitats, so combating it protects biodiversity. UNCCD itself states it 'collaborates closely with the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).'
(3) World Heritage Convention — protects natural World Heritage Sites (like Sundarbans, Western Ghats, Kaziranga), which are biodiversity hotspots.
Think broadly: biodiversity is affected by agriculture, land degradation, AND habitat protection — all three conventions address one of these.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 68.
Environment If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?
- AChanges in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
- BThe country in which the wetland is located should enact a low to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland.
- CThe survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.
- DIt is given the status of 'World Heritage Site'.
Show answer
Answer: (A) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
The Montreux Record is a register of Ramsar wetland sites where ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur due to human interference.
Think of it as a 'red flag list' or 'danger list' for wetlands.
Being on the Montreux Record means the wetland needs urgent attention and conservation measures.
It does NOT mean:
(b) A 5 km no-activity zone is created — no such rule exists.
(c) Cultural diversity protection — this confuses it with UNESCO cultural heritage concepts.
(d) World Heritage Site status — that's a separate UNESCO designation.
India's Montreux Record sites have included Chilika Lake (removed after improvement), Loktak Lake, and Keoladeo Ghana NP.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 69.
Environment With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:
- It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests
- It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness
- It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 — WRONG:
BNHS (founded 1883) is one of India's oldest NGOs for nature conservation.
It is NOT an autonomous organisation under MoEF&CC.
It receives government grants but operates independently.
The MoEF lists its autonomous bodies separately (like Wildlife Institute of India, ZSI, BSI, FSI) — BNHS is not among them.
Statement 2 — CORRECT:
BNHS works through action-based research (bird migration studies, endangered species surveys), education, and public awareness campaigns.
Statement 3 — CORRECT:
BNHS organises nature trails, bird-watching trips, camps, and workshops for the general public.
It's headquartered in Mumbai's Hornbill House.
UPSC trap:
Just because an organisation works closely with the government doesn't mean it's an 'autonomous body under' a ministry.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 70.
Environment With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- AIt serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'.
- BIt undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
- CIt is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
- DBoth (a) and (b)
Show answer
Answer: (A) It serves as financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'.
Only statement
(a) is correct.
GEF (Global Environment Facility) is an independent international financial mechanism that provides grants to developing countries for projects on:
- biodiversity
- climate change
- international waters
- land degradation
- ozone layer
- persistent organic pollutants.
It serves as the FINANCIAL MECHANISM for both CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity) and UNFCCC (UN Framework Convention on Climate Change).
Why others are wrong:
(b) GEF funds projects — it does NOT conduct scientific research itself. That's the role of bodies like IPCC or UNEP.
(c) GEF is NOT under OECD. It's an independent body with World Bank as a trustee. It involves 183 countries.
(d) Since
(b) is wrong, 'Both
(a) and
(b)' is also wrong.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 71.
Environment The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
- Abiosphere
- Breserves
- Cnational parks
- DWildlife sanctuaries
Show answer
Answer: (A) biosphere
Biosphere Reserves are the best answer because they are designed to achieve BOTH conservation AND sustainable human life together.
A Biosphere Reserve has three zones:
(1) Core Zone — strictly protected, no human activity (like a National Park).
(2) Buffer Zone — limited human activity, research, and education allowed.
(3) Transition Zone — outermost area where traditional human activities like farming, settlement, and sustainable resource use continue.
National Parks — strict protection, no human habitation or grazing allowed.
Wildlife Sanctuaries — some human activities allowed but focus is on wildlife, not integrating traditional life.
The question specifically asks about conservation 'together with traditional human life' — only Biosphere Reserves are explicitly designed for this dual purpose.
India has 18 Biosphere Reserves (e.g., Nilgiri, Sundarbans, Gulf of Mannar).
(Ref: NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch.15)
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 72.
Environment With reference to a conservation organization called 'Wetlands International', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an intergovernmental organizatioin formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention
- It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Statement 1 — WRONG:
Wetlands International is a global NGO (non-governmental organisation),
NOT an intergovernmental organisation.
It was not formed by Ramsar Convention signatories.
It's an independent body headquartered in the Netherlands that works on wetland conservation worldwide.
Don't confuse it with the Ramsar Convention Secretariat (which IS intergovernmental).
Statement 2 — CORRECT:
Wetlands International works at the field level —
conducting on-ground research,
building knowledge,
and using that practical experience to advocate for better wetland policies with governments.
Key distinction for UPSC:
- NGO (non-governmental, civil society)
- IGO (intergovernmental, formed by governments).
Wetlands International = NGO.
Ramsar Convention = international treaty/IGO framework.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation - 73.
Environment Which of the following adds/ads carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth ?
- Volcanic action
- Respiration
- Photosynthesis
- Decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 only
- C1, 2 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
The question asks what ADDS CO2 to the atmosphere:
(1) Volcanic action — CORRECT: Volcanoes release massive amounts of CO2 trapped in the Earth's interior.
(2) Respiration — CORRECT: All living organisms (plants, animals, microbes) take in O2 and release CO2 during respiration.
(3) Photosynthesis — WRONG: Photosynthesis does the OPPOSITE — it REMOVES CO2 from the atmosphere and converts it into glucose using sunlight. Plants absorb CO2, not release it.
(4) Decay of organic matter — CORRECT: Decomposition of dead organisms by bacteria and fungi releases CO2 back into the atmosphere.
Memory trick: Photosynthesis is the only process that TAKES CO2 OUT. Volcanoes, respiration, decay, and burning fossil fuels all ADD CO2.
(Ref: NCERT Class 11 Geography, Ch.15)
Key learnings →Climate Change - 74.
Environment The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 20C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 30C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1 Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2.Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3.All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4.Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
At 3°C+ warming above pre-industrial levels:
Statement 1 — CORRECT: The terrestrial biosphere (forests, soils) would shift from being a net carbon SINK (absorbing CO2) to a net carbon SOURCE (releasing CO2) — due to increased wildfires, droughts killing forests, and accelerated decomposition of soil organic matter.
This creates a dangerous positive feedback loop.
Statement 2 — CORRECT: Widespread coral mortality would occur.
Corals are extremely sensitive to temperature — even 1-2°C above normal causes coral bleaching.
At 3°C+ global warming, most tropical coral reefs would die.
Statement 3 — WRONG: 'ALL global wetlands will permanently disappear' is too extreme.
Some wetlands would be affected, but total permanent disappearance of ALL wetlands is not scientifically supported.
Statement 4 — WRONG: 'Cultivation of cereals will not be possible ANYWHERE' is also too extreme.
Some regions would lose agricultural productivity, but others (like parts of Canada, Russia) might gain it.
Key learnings →Climate Change - 75.
Environment Consider the following:
- Bats
- Bears
- Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
- A1and 2 only
- B2 only
- C1, 2 and 3 only
- DHibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
All three groups hibernate:
(1) Bats — many bat species hibernate during winter in caves or attics. Their heart rate drops from 400 to 25 beats per minute.
(2) Bears — classic hibernators. They enter a state of torpor (slightly different from 'true' hibernation) during winter, living off stored body fat.
(3) Rodents — many rodents hibernate, including ground squirrels, chipmunks, and dormice. Some rodents are among the deepest true hibernators.
Common misconception: Some students think only bears hibernate. Actually, many small mammals hibernate more deeply than bears. Bears' body temperature drops only slightly, while small hibernators like ground squirrels can cool to near 0°C. All three are correct.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems - 76.
Environment Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
- ADiatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
- BCrustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
- CDiatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
- DCrustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
Show answer
Answer: (A) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
A food chain always flows:
Producer → Primary Consumer → Secondary Consumer.
Diatoms are microscopic algae (producers — they photosynthesise).
Crustaceans (like krill, copepods) are tiny animals that feed on diatoms (primary consumers).
Herrings are small fish that eat crustaceans (secondary consumers).
So the correct chain is:
Diatoms → Crustaceans → Herrings.
Any sequence that puts consumers before producers is wrong.
This is an aquatic/marine food chain example.
Remember: food chains ALWAYS start with a producer (plants/algae).
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems - 77.
Environment Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
- APotential energy is released to form free energy.
- BFree energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
- CFood is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water.
- DOxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out.
Show answer
Answer: (B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
Photosynthesis is the process where plants CAPTURE light energy (free energy from sunlight) and CONVERT it into chemical potential energy stored in glucose (food).
The equation:
6CO2 + 6H2O + Light energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2.
So energy goes FROM free/light energy → TO stored potential energy.
Why other options are wrong:
(a) Releasing potential energy = respiration (the reverse process).
(c) Oxidising food to release CO2 and water = respiration, not photosynthesis.
(d) Taking in O2 and releasing CO2 = also respiration.
Trick: Photosynthesis STORES energy. Respiration RELEASES energy. They are opposite processes.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems - 78.
Environment Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecolological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of
- Aalgae and bacteria
- Balgae and fungi
- Cbacteria and fungi
- Dfungi and mosses
Show answer
Answer: (B) algae and fungi
Lichens = Algae + Fungi living together (symbiosis/mutualism).
The algae (or cyanobacteria) do photosynthesis and make food, while the fungi provide structure, protection, and help retain moisture.
This partnership is so tough that lichens can colonise bare rock — making them pioneer species in ecological succession.
Remember: it's NOT bacteria, NOT mosses.
(NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch.13)
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems - 79.
Environment With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:
- Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites
- Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents
- Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Neem is well known for its medicinal, agricultural, and industrial applications.
Statement 1 correct — Neem oil contains compounds such as azadirachtin, which act as natural pesticides effective against several insects and mites. It is widely used in organic farming and pest control.
Statement 2 is incorrect — although experimental research exists regarding neem-based biodiesel and cleaning products, Neem seeds are not commonly recognized in standard references as being used for the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents in the context of this UPSC question.
Statement 3 correct — Neem oil has important applications in the pharmaceutical and cosmetic industries due to its antibacterial, antifungal, anti-inflammatory, and medicinal properties.
Therefore:
- Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
- Statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development - 80.
Environment What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative'?
- Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation
- Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this
- There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this
- The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 3 only
- B1, 2 and 4 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is an improved method adapted from SRI (System of Rice Intensification).
Key features:
Statement 1 — CORRECT: SSI uses single-bud chips (settlings) instead of full setts, drastically reducing seed cane cost (only 1/6th of conventional seed material).
Statement 2 — CORRECT: SSI uses wider spacing (5 ft × 2 ft), which makes drip irrigation very effective and practical.
Statement 3 — WRONG: SSI encourages REDUCED use of chemical fertilizers and promotes organic inputs, but it does NOT completely eliminate chemical fertilizers. The word 'no application at all' makes this an absolute claim, which is false.
Statement 4 — CORRECT: The wider spacing allows more intercropping (growing pulses, vegetables between sugarcane rows). UPSC
tip: Beware of extreme words like 'no', 'all', 'never', 'completely' — they usually make the statement wrong.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development - 81.
Environment Consider the following statements regarding 'Earth Hour'
- It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO
- It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year
- It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 — WRONG:
Earth Hour is an initiative of WWF (World Wildlife Fund / World Wide Fund for Nature), NOT UNEP or UNESCO.
It started in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
Statement 2 — CORRECT:
Participants switch off non-essential lights for one hour (8:30 PM to 9:30 PM local time) on the last Saturday of March every year.
Statement 3 — CORRECT:
The purpose is to raise awareness about climate change and the need for environmental sustainability.
It's a symbolic act — the actual energy saved is minimal, but it sparks conversation.
Common UPSC trap: mixing up which UN/international body runs which initiative.
WWF also runs Earth Overshoot Day and the Living Planet Report.
Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues - 82.
Environment Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Gangas River Dolphins?
- Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
- Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
- Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
- Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
The Gangetic River Dolphin (India's national aquatic animal) is declining due to multiple human-caused threats:
(1) Dams and barrages — CORRECT: They fragment the river, isolate dolphin populations, reduce water flow, and block migration routes.
(2) Crocodile population increase — WRONG: Crocodiles are NOT a significant threat to dolphins. Both have coexisted for millennia. Dolphin decline is human-caused, not predator-caused.
(3) Fishing nets — CORRECT: Dolphins accidentally get entangled in gill nets and drown (bycatch).
(4) Agricultural chemicals — CORRECT: Pesticides, fertilizers, and industrial effluents from nearby fields poison the river water, reducing fish populations (dolphin food) and directly harming dolphins.
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. The crocodile option is the distractor.
Key learnings →Pollution - 83.
Environment Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?
- Oxides of sulphur
- Oxide of nitrogen
- Carbon monoxide
- Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1, 3 and 4 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Steel-making involves burning coke (coal) at very high temperatures and processing iron ore — this releases ALL four pollutants:
(1) Oxides of sulphur (SOx) — from sulphur in coal/ore,
(2) Oxides of nitrogen (NOx) — from high-temperature combustion,
(3) Carbon monoxide (CO) — from incomplete combustion of coke,
(4) Carbon dioxide (CO2) — from complete combustion.
Whenever UPSC asks about pollutants from heavy industry, 'all of the above' is usually correct because these processes are inherently dirty.
Key learnings →Pollution - 84.
Environment Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery.
Why is there some concern about their use?
- They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment
- They are able to accumulate in humans and animals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Both concerns are valid:
(1) Persistent in environment — CORRECT: Brominated flame retardants (BFRs) are chemically very stable, meaning they resist natural breakdown (biodegradation). They persist in soil, water, and sediments for years — similar to how DDT and PCBs persist.
(2) Bioaccumulation — CORRECT: Because BFRs are fat-soluble (lipophilic), they accumulate in the fatty tissues of animals and humans over time. They biomagnify up the food chain — higher predators (including humans) have higher concentrations. BFRs have been found in human breast milk and blood.
These two properties together — persistence + bioaccumulation — are exactly what makes Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) dangerous. BFRs are regulated under the Stockholm Convention on POPs.
Key learnings →Pollution - 85.
Science and Technology Consider the following techniques/phenomena:
- Budding and grafting in fruit plants
- Cytoplasmic male sterility
- Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Transgenic crops = crops that have foreign genes inserted into them using genetic engineering.
(1) Budding and grafting — WRONG: These are traditional horticultural techniques that join two plant parts physically.
No gene transfer happens — the rootstock and scion keep their own DNA.
Not transgenic.
(2) Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) — CORRECT: CMS is used in transgenic crop development to prevent pollen formation, helping create hybrid seeds and acting as a biological containment tool for transgenic plants.
(3) Gene silencing (RNA interference) — CORRECT: This is a core genetic engineering technique used to 'switch off' specific genes in transgenic crops (e.g., silencing genes that cause browning in apples, or pest-susceptibility genes).
Both 2 and 3 are biotechnology tools used specifically in transgenic crop creation.
Key learnings →Biotechnology - 86.
Science and Technology In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?
- Iris scanning
- Retinal scanning
- Voice recognition
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three are valid biometric identification methods:
(1) Iris scanning — captures the unique pattern of the coloured part of the eye. Used in Aadhaar enrollment.
(2) Retinal scanning — maps the unique blood vessel pattern at the back of the eye. More intrusive (requires close proximity) but very accurate.
(3) Voice recognition — analyses unique vocal characteristics (pitch, tone, cadence). Used in phone banking and security.
Other biometric methods include:
- face recognition
- palm vein scanning
- gait analysis
- even DNA.
India's Aadhaar uses fingerprints + iris scans. All three options are correct.
Key learnings →Biotechnology - 87.
Science and Technology Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?
- Vegetative propagation produces clonal population
- Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus
- Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 — CORRECT:
Vegetative propagation (growing new plants from cuttings, runners, tubers, etc.) produces clones — genetically identical copies of the parent plant.
No mixing of genes occurs since there's no pollination/fertilisation.
Statement 2 — WRONG:
Vegetative propagation does NOT eliminate viruses.
If the parent plant is virus-infected, the new plant will also carry the same virus (since it comes from the parent's tissue).
To eliminate viruses, you need specialised techniques like meristem culture (tissue culture from virus-free growing tips).
Statement 3 — CORRECT:
Unlike seed-based reproduction which depends on flowering seasons, vegetative propagation can be done most of the year since it doesn't need flowers or seeds.
Key learnings →Biotechnology - 88.
Science and Technology With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is surface-to surface missile
- It is fuelled by liquid propellant only
- It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500km away
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Agni-IV facts:
(1) Surface-to-surface missile — CORRECT. It is launched from the ground to hit ground targets.
(2) Fuelled by liquid propellant only — WRONG. Agni-IV uses two stages of SOLID propellant (solid fuel is easier to store and quicker to launch).
(3) Range of 7500 km — WRONG. Agni-IV has a range of about 4,000 km (intermediate range). It's Agni-V that has 5,000+ km range.
Tip: For UPSC, remember the Agni family —
- Agni-I (700 km)
- Agni-II (2000 km)
- Agni-III (3000 km)
- Agni-IV (4000 km)
- Agni-V (5000+ km).
All use solid propellant.
Key learnings →Defence - 89.
Science and Technology With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas', consider the following statements :
- Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mnixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks
- In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.
Which of the statements given
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are wrong.
Statement 1 error:
Shale gas is NOT a mixture of propane and butane only.
Shale gas is mainly methane (natural gas) trapped in shale rock formations, along with small amounts of ethane, propane, and butane.
Coalbed methane IS methane from coal seams — that part is roughly correct, but the shale gas description is completely wrong.
Statement 2 error:
India HAS identified shale gas sources — notably in the Cambay Basin (Gujarat), Krishna-Godavari Basin, Cauvery Basin, and Damodar Valley.
So the claim that 'no shale gas sources have been found' is false.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials - 90.
Science and Technology There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?
- They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil
- They can enter the food chains
- They can trigger the production of free radicals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
All three concerns about nanoparticles are valid:
(1) Environmental accumulation — nanoparticles are extremely stable and resistant to degradation, so they persist in water and soil for long periods, contaminating ecosystems.
(2) Food chain entry — because of their ultra-small size (1–100 nanometres), they can be absorbed by microorganisms and plants, then move up the food chain through bioaccumulation.
(3) Free radical production — inside living cells, nanoparticles can trigger oxidative stress by generating free radicals, which damage DNA, proteins, and cell membranes.
This is why nanotech safety (nanotoxicology) is a growing field. All three statements are correct.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials - 91.
Science and Technology With reference to technology for solar power production, consider the following statements:
- 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilizes the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process
- Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC)
- India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for photovoltaics
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Statement 1 — CORRECT:
Photovoltaic (PV) technology converts sunlight DIRECTLY into electricity using semiconductor cells (like silicon).
Solar Thermal technology uses mirrors/lenses to concentrate sunlight → generate heat → boil water → produce steam → spin turbines → generate electricity (indirect conversion via heat).
Statement 2 — WRONG:
It's the reverse!
PV generates Direct Current (DC), which is then converted to AC using an inverter.
Solar Thermal, using turbines, generates Alternating Current (AC) directly.
Statement 3 — WRONG:
India DOES have a PV manufacturing base (companies like Tata Solar, Vikram Solar, Adani Solar).
India actually has a larger PV manufacturing base than a solar thermal one.
Only statement 1 is correct.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials - 92.
Science and Technology Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?
- Crystallization of sodium chloride
- Melting of ice
- Souring of milk
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 only
Chemical change = a new substance is formed (irreversible, change in composition).
Physical change = only form/state changes (reversible, same substance).
(1) Crystallisation of NaCl — PHYSICAL change.
Salt molecules simply arrange into crystal structure; no new substance forms.
(2) Melting of ice — PHYSICAL change.
H2O stays H2O; only state changes from solid to liquid.
(3) Souring of milk — CHEMICAL change.
Bacteria convert lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid through fermentation.
A completely new substance (lactic acid) is formed, and you can't reverse soured milk back to fresh milk.
Only statement 3 is a chemical change.
(Ref: NCERT Class 7 Science, Ch.6)
Key learnings →Energy & Materials - 93.
Science and Technology Consider the following statements:
- Maize can be used for the production of starch
- Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel
- Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Maize (corn) is an incredibly versatile crop with multiple industrial uses:
(1) Starch production — CORRECT: Maize is the world's primary source of industrial starch (corn starch), used in food processing, paper, textiles, and adhesives.
(2) Biodiesel feedstock — CORRECT: Corn oil, extracted from the germ of maize kernels, can be converted into biodiesel.
(3) Alcoholic beverages — CORRECT: Maize is used to produce bourbon whiskey, corn beer (chicha), and also ethanol for fuel. In the US, most ethanol fuel comes from corn.
All three statements are correct.
Maize is sometimes called 'the queen of cereals' because of its enormous range of uses — food, feed, fuel, fibre, and industrial products.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials - 94.
Science and Technology Consider the following diseases :
- Diphtheria
- Chickenpox
- Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India ?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 only
Only Smallpox has been eradicated — both in India (1977) and globally (declared by WHO in 1980).
It remains the ONLY human disease ever fully eradicated worldwide.
Diphtheria — NOT eradicated.
- It still occurs in India, though vaccination (DPT vaccine) has reduced it significantly.
- Cases resurge when vaccination coverage drops.
Chickenpox (Varicella) — NOT eradicated.
- It still occurs commonly in India.
- There is a vaccine, but it's not part of India's Universal Immunisation Programme.
Key distinction:
- Eradicated = zero cases worldwide, permanently.
- Eliminated = zero cases in a specific country/region.
- Controlled = reduced but still present.
In India, Polio was eliminated (2014), but smallpox is the only disease eradicated.
Key learnings →Health - 95.
Science and Technology Consider the following pairs:
Vitamin Deficiency disease 1. Vitamin C Scurvy 2. Vitamin D Rickets 3. Vitamin E Night blindness Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C1, 2 and 3
- DNone
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Pair 1 — CORRECT:
Vitamin C deficiency → Scurvy (bleeding gums, weakness, bruising).
Pair 2 — CORRECT:
Vitamin D deficiency → Rickets (soft, weak bones in children; osteomalacia in adults).
Pair 3 — WRONG:
Vitamin E deficiency does NOT cause night blindness.
Night blindness is caused by Vitamin A deficiency.
Vitamin E deficiency causes nerve and muscle damage, not eye problems.
Must-memorise chart:
- Vit A → Night blindness
- Vit B1 → Beriberi
- Vit B3 → Pellagra
- Vit C → Scurvy
- Vit D → Rickets
- Vit K → Bleeding disorders.
(Ref: NCERT Science Class 9)
Key learnings →Health - 96.
Science and Technology Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft Purpose 1. Cassini-Huygens Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth 2. Messenger Mapping and investigating the Mercury 3. Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Pair 1 — WRONG:
Cassini-Huygens was sent to SATURN (not Venus).
It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, and the Huygens probe landed on Saturn's moon Titan.
Venus missions include Venera (Soviet) and Magellan (NASA).
Pair 2 — CORRECT:
MESSENGER (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging) was NASA's mission to map and investigate Mercury.
It orbited Mercury from 2011 to 2015.
Pair 3 — CORRECT:
Voyager 1 and 2 (launched 1977) explored the outer solar system — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune — and are now in interstellar space.
Voyager 1 is the farthest human-made object from Earth.
Memory aid:
Cassini = Saturn (both have 'a' as second letter).
Key learnings →Space - 97.
World Affairs (International Relations) Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally started from
- AEgypt
- BLebanon
- CSyria
- DTunisia
Show answer
Answer: (D) Tunisia
The Arab Spring began in Tunisia in December 2010 when a street vendor named Mohamed Bouazizi set himself on fire in protest against police corruption.
This triggered mass protests that overthrew President Ben Ali (who fled to Saudi Arabia in January 2011).
The movement then spread to:
- Egypt (Mubarak ousted)
- Libya (Gaddafi killed)
- Syria (civil war)
- Yemen
- Bahrain
Key point: Tunisia was the origin, Egypt was the most famous domino to fall.
Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions - 98.
World Affairs (International Relations) With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:
- The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Jeneiro in 2009
- South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Statement 1 — WRONG:
The first BRIC Summit (without 'S') was held in Yekaterinburg, RUSSIA in June 2009, NOT Rio de Janeiro.
Rio de Janeiro hosted the 2014 FIFA World Cup and 2016 Olympics, which may cause confusion.
Statement 2 — CORRECT:
South Africa joined BRIC in December 2010, making it BRICS.
The original four (Brazil, Russia, India, China) were coined as 'BRIC' by Goldman Sachs economist Jim O'Neill in 2001.
South Africa was the last addition.
Timeline:
- 2009 — 1st BRIC Summit (Russia).
- 2010 — South Africa invited.
- 2011 — 3rd Summit (China) — first as 'BRICS.'
Note:
In 2024, BRICS expanded further to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and UAE.
Key learnings →Multilateral System - 99.
World Affairs (International Relations) Consider the following pairs:
Region often in news Country 1. Chechnya Russian Federation 2. Darfur Mali 3. Swat Valley Iraq Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Only Pair 1 is correct:
Chechnya is in the Russian Federation (a conflict-prone region in the North Caucasus).
Pair 2 is wrong:
Darfur is in Sudan (western Sudan), NOT Mali.
Mali has its own conflicts in the Sahel region, but Darfur belongs to Sudan.
Pair 3 is wrong:
Swat Valley is in Pakistan (Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province), NOT Iraq.
It was in the news due to Taliban insurgency and is also where Malala Yousafzai is from.
Key learnings →News Through Maps - 100.
World Affairs (International Relations) Consider the following countries :
- Denmark
- Japan
- Russian Federation
- United Kingdom
- United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council' ?
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2, 3 and 4
- C1, 4 and 5
- D1, 3 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 5
The Arctic Council has 8 member states — all countries with territory inside the Arctic Circle:
- Canada
- USA
- Russia
- Denmark (via Greenland)
- Norway
- Sweden
- Finland
- Iceland
From the options:
- Denmark (yes — Greenland is Danish)
- Russia (yes)
- USA (yes — Alaska)
Japan and UK are NOT members — they are Observer states.
Easy trick: Ask 'Does this country touch the Arctic?' Japan and UK don't.
Key learnings →Thematic / Cross-cutting Issues
No questions for this subject.
End of paper · 100 questions